A finite verb is unaccented when a word precedes it which is not a finite verb.,
Thus देवदत्तः प॒॒च॒॒ति॒॒ ॥ Why do we say \a finite verb\? Observe नीलमुत्पलम्, शुक्लं वस्त्रम् ॥
Why do we say 'when the preceding word is not a finite verb'? Observe भवति प꣡चति 'the act of cooking exists' = पाक क्रिया भवति ॥ Here the word भवति is a finite verb, therefore the verb pachati does not lose its accent. So also तरनिरिज् ज॒॒य॒॒ति॒॒, क्षो꣡ति, पु꣡ष्यति 'successful he conquers, rules, thrives', अस्म꣡भ्यां जे॒॒षि॒॒ यो꣡त्सिच \for us conquer and fight\. The word अतिङः is in one sense redundant, because in one simple sentence, two finite verbs cannot be employed; one sentence consists of one finite verb only. But the very fact of this sutra indicates that the condition of समानवाक्य does not apply to this sutra; so that the two words need not be portions of the same sentence, for the application of this nighata: as we have already explained in 8.1.19. Other examples are: are अग्निमी॒॒डे॒॒ पुरोहितं (Rig Veda. 1. 1. 1). स इद्देवेषु꣡ ग॒॒च्छ॒॒ति॒॒ (Rig Veda. I. I. 4), अग्ने꣡ सूपायनो꣡ भ॒॒व॒॒ (Rig Veda. V. 1. 1), य꣡जमानस्य प꣡शून् पा॒॒हि॒॒ ॥,
